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Old Sep 4 2006, 9:11 AM
The Baroque Enthusiast The Baroque Enthusiast is offline

Intermediate Composer
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Joined: 5-August 05
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Quote:
Originally Posted by leightwing View Post
Just a silly question. Why end the first movement with a Picardy and the last without?
Hmm, that is a good question. I guess that because that there's such a prolongation of the material before the final cadence in Mvt. I, it made sense to bring that final release with the Picardy third. Mvt. III 's conclusion is just a repeat of the initial jig, with barely any frills, so I left the cadence as is.

Thanks for the input! I would still love to hear your thoughts on the second movement though!

- BE
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