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Old Apr 6 2007, 2:53 PM
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Yes, you can, that's the 3rd inversion of the 7th chord. And then I see what you mean about the major 2nd. It should resolve to a consonance, but like I say, after the baroque period, the use of the 7th chord etc. is rather free.
the 7th in the bass would often go to the third of the tonic chord.
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