
Oh no! I contradicted my own logic. Ooh, Ow, it burns, make it stop...
Ok, let me explain my idiocy:
I implied that the pieces created in imitation of a composer are always artistic, given that they are created by a human. Upon further examination of the logic behind this statement, I find that this is untrue.
Here's the logic: We can group all of human endeavors into two groups, artistic and practical. That is, if something was made to aid someone, then it serves a practical purpose; if something was made to express something, then it serves a artistic purpose. Some fields of human endeavors fall easily into one category. Engineering, for instance, is rarely artistic. Others, however, are not so easily divided. For example, architecture is often both practical and artistic. Where then does musical imitation fall?
More often then not, a composer imitates a style in order to learn how to write in that style; a "academic" purpose, as Jujimufu put it. This is where the misstep in logic comes in. Since the composer was not attempting to express himself, it is not artistic. This is not to say that all imitation is unartistic, but whether or not it is depends on the intent of the composer. Which is something Robin said in the beginning of his post. Thank you for allowing to correct my stupidity.
