Geez, Shaun - you should know me better than this. Taking my cues from a movie that I've never seen!? I nearly LOL'd. I took my cues from reading his notebooks, reading the conversation books, and from written records from people around him. A person can be engaged in his/her surroundings while at the same time living in a vacuum - and Beethoven, as well documented, was one individual that provides a very clear and concise case on the matter.
Yes, there was a far greater consumption of music in the upper class in those days. And I never said that a 'minstrel' show was anywhere near a 'modern' rock show. The fact of the matter isn't whether the folk music of the period was anything related to modern day pop or rock - though certainly one could, and probably has, made connections to that regard - the matter is whether a commoner attended a symphony orchestra concert.
I'm afraid I'm not following your train of thought in this paragraph. You go from talking about how no distinction can be made between art and popular music as one could in the 18th century and then your accusing me of glossing over as 'though it's broadly the same now as it was then'? Well, I strongly disagree - and this is more my historical side then my musical side. I think, sadly, your missing my point here - and literally, you seem to be going well over the ball park in trying to actually quantify what I said.
First, we have to remove the idea that music today = music of yesterday. The truth of the matter is that music today =/= the music of yesterday. Just the same way as current social roles and expectations =/= the social roles and expectations of the past. Yes, one could get on that age old argument that a composer builds on work laid by a predecessor (yada yada) but that isn't even part of the conversation here. That said, assuming that I'm equating the musical experience today to that of yesterday is really something I'm shocked at. Especially considering that there are more avenues of expression available and the fact that we have far more means to create music then existed some 100 years ago. Anyways, I digress. The point I was making was that to say that Beethoven and Mozart were the most successful musicians of their times is logically false. As I made in my original point on this: there music was consumed largely by the upper 1% of society at the time. Does that mean that peasantry also appreciated there music? That's hard to say - but, I think given the fact that most - if not all - could barely afford food, I highly doubt they could afford to sit in on a concert. And that brings me to some proof on the matter: Mozart's public concerts. Mozart, as history shows, did give public subscription concerts of his work in Vienna. These were widely popular AND most likely did draw in commoners. How many attended? Who knows - all we know is that special areas were zoned for the Emperor, princes, nobles, bishops, etc. Mozart also, as history shows, did have few performances in more 'homely' establishments (casinos, etc.). It's far more complex really BUT I feel pretty confident to say that Lil' Mahalia Doe who lived in a rural village with 4 kids and an annual household income of a meager $20 probably didn't get much time to go to the local city to listen to Mozart. And, I think it's fair to say, given the fact that Lil' Mahalia was a fair representation of at minimum 80% of the population at that time... most people didn't. So, the question is...
1. What music did she listen to?
2. What were her thoughts on musical expression, if any?
3. What exposure to music did she have?
Just taking an educated guess on these three important questions... I'd have to say that she probably listened largely to music that was being made everyday around her: folk music. I think it's virtually impossible to gauge her thoughts on musical expression. Exposure wise, I think that she had a limited exposure to music that was limited by the sharp class hierarchy and societal norms that were largely widespread in Europe from 800 AD to around 1910 AD (perhaps as early as 1880.)
Sorry that I had to use an example. I thought it was important though to really bring a more colorful approach to this. Now, to risk you saying I'm over generalizing......
By 1910, the middle class was large enough to be a larger consumer market for art and media. One good example of this is the rise of the piano. The piano by 1910 was in virtually every middle class home. As sheet music from this time showcases (and from the 1880s and 1890s), middle class families demanded music regularly. This created a HUGE market for piano music - and the result, of course, is that many works were being transcribed for piano AND new works were being created. Many modern publishing houses have their roots in this time period - and for precisely this very reason.
So, did the piano market and the middle class just 'magically' appear fully developed by 1910? Absolutely not. The roots of the burgeoning middle class today go back no early than at least 1790 - and to some degree perhaps as soon as 1780. Pretty much they go back to the start of industrialization. From the start of the process until roughly 1910, there was a steady growth - that has been WELL documented.
I hope that adds more light on the matter. I was nearly on the floor when I saw you misconstrue what I said. :blink: