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It seems that anytime you get classical musicians or composers together on an online forum the topic, or really the flame inducing debate, of atonal vs. tonal music comes up. Though atonal music (or to use the more inclusive term post-tonal) has been around for about 100 years, there seems to be no end to the number of pages of post, rebuttals, counter arguments, and comments these threads generate. This "debate" goes far beyond just threads about the topic. Any mention of atonality vs. tonality anywhere near classical music (i.e. comment section on articles, youtube videos, and Facebook post)
So, had an interesting event to witness in the shoutbox this evening. One member made the statement that there is either Tonality or Dissonance. So, I give this to you -oh great forum peoples: Do you believe that music is either 'tonality or dissonance'? If so, why?